
Let's say you are on a sixth or seventh date with a girl, you're passionately kissing and you put your hand on her clothed boobs. She makes no effort to stop you and is clearly getting aroused. You move your hand to her lap and she spreads her legs apart. Then she starts fondling you. Isn't she telling you that she wants sex? And if she wants something that is not full PIV sex, like a hand job, she can make that clear to you. Seems obvious to me, but if you suggest that consent can be inferred from the circumstances, some of the white knights/SJW's will descend upon you! From a legal perspective, consent to sex can be inferred from the conduct of the parties even though it was never explicitly discussed between them.
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