Some people use Jude 1:7 (which says that the Sodomites "went after strange flesh") as evidence, but that verse actually contradicts that point. The original Greek word that is translated "strange" (ironically "heteras") is used elsewhere in the Bible solely to refer to foreigners. Proof: https://biblehub.com/greek/heteras_2087.htm
The Sodomites went after foreigners. This is consistent with Genesis 18:20 that says that there was a great outcry against Sodom. Were people crying out because the Sodomites are having consensual gay sex? No. Genesis 19 provides an illustration of the way that the Sodomites abused foreigners.
Two angels arrived at Lot's house, under the disguise of men. All the people in Sodom gathered outside the house, demanding for the angels to be let outside, so that the Sodomites could gang-rape them. Yes, the angels presented as male, but Lot was also male. Why did the Sodomites try to rape the angels, but not Lot? Because the angels were foreigners.
Ezekiel 16:49-50 says "Behold, this was the iniquity of thy sister Sodom, pride, fulness of bread, and abundance of idleness was in her and in her daughters, neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty, and committed abomination before me: therefore I took them away as I saw good."
No reference to homosexuality. Some people say that "abomination" refers to homosexuality, but to me, it clearly refers to how they would commit GANG-RAPE, as illustrated in Genesis 19. I'm not denying that the Bible says male homosexual intercourse is a sin, but if you genuinely believe consensual homosexuality is a greater abomination than GANG-RAPE (whether homosexual or heterosexual), then I'm not sure you're worth arguing with.
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